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Were Catholic doctrines such as purgatory and papal primacy really universal in the early Church?


Why does the Catholic Church claim (from Vatican I) that<br /> its doctrines can be verified by the &quot;universal and unanimous consent of the Fathers&quot; when it&#039;s so easy to prove that the Fathers were not unanimous in their teachings? Catholic doctrines such as purgatory, baptismal regeneration, and papal primacy were not &quot;universally&quot;<br /> held in the early Church.<br /> <br />


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