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This Rock
Volume 16, Number 2
  February 2005  

 Frontispiece
By Karl Keating
 Letters
 Making Converts of Cradle Catholics
By Mary Beth Kremski
 Is Natural Family Planning a Heresy?
By Fr. Brian Harrison. O.S.
 Ten Questions about Canon Law
By Pete Vere and Michael Trueman
 Skill Is Gained by Experience
By Jimmy Akin
 To Explain Infant Baptism You Must Explain Original Sin
By John S. Martignoni
 Step by Step
Is Salvation an Act or a Process?
By Kenneth J. Howell
 Fathers Know Best
Do Miracles Still Occur?
 Brass Tacks
Spiritual Headship
By Jimmy Akin
 Damascus Road
No Conversion Is Truly Sudden
By Fr. Michael Moore
 Reviews
 Classic Apologetics
True Laws Lead to True Freedom
By Frank Sheed
 Quick Questions

  Subscribe
  Permissions

Is It Necessary to Confess Venial Sin?


Q: My confessor said that it is not necessary to confess venial sin, and I get the feeling he is discouraging me from doing so and from going to confession too often. Is there some direction from the Church on this?

A: In 1943, Pope Pius XII wrote: "As you well know, venerable brethren, it is true that venial sins may be expiated in many ways that are to be highly commended. But to ensure more rapid progress day by day in the path of virtue, we will that the pious practice of frequent confession, which was introduced into the Church by the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, should be earnestly advocated. By it genuine self-knowledge is increased, Christian humility grows, bad habits are corrected, spiritual neglect and tepidity are resisted, the conscience is purified, the will strengthened, a salutary self-control is attained, and grace is increased in virtue of the sacrament itself" (Mystici Corporis 88).

The confessing of venial sins is "strongly recommended" by the Catechism of the Catholic Church (cf. CCC 1458).



Q: If parents are in an invalid marriage, can their children be baptized in the Catholic Church? Are there any conditions that would have to be met?

A: If parents are in an invalid marriage, their children can be baptized in the Catholic Church provided the following conditions are met:

"That the parents, or at least one of them, or the person who lawfully holds their place, give their consent;

"That there be a well-founded hope that the child will be brought up in the Catholic religion. If such hope is truly lacking, the baptism is, in accordance with the provisions of particular law, to be deferred and the parents advised of the reason for this.

"An infant of Catholic parents, indeed even of non-Catholic parents, may in danger of death be baptized even if the parents are opposed to it" (Code of Canon Law 868).



Q: I have always liked old rosaries and have over the years bought many rosaries at various places. I have never re-sold any rosary I have bought, but the question of simony has come up in my conscience lately. Is it sinful for me to buy these, knowing that many of the old ones are most likely blessed?

A: The Catechism defines simony as the buying or selling of spiritual things (cf. CCC 2121). By your account, it is not your intention to buy a spiritual good (such as the graces using the rosary with the proper disposition can help us achieve) but only the rosary itself. This is not a sin. When you are ready to use them, you should have them blessed again.



Q: Divorce, if I understand correctly, is considered gravely sinful. Why then would the Church require divorce before consideration of an appeal for annulment? Isn’t this choosing evil so that a greater good may come from it?

A: The Church does not officially require a civil divorce before accepting an annulment petition. But canon lawyer Edward Peters explains that virtually every tribunal in America requires proof of civil divorce because "many tribunals apparently fear that they can be sued by irate spouses for ‘alienation of affection.’" Peters thinks this reason is "quite unsatisfying," but he holds that "a civil divorce is a practical way of determining that there is no realistic hope of reconciling the parties, something tribunal judges are required to verify as part of every tribunal case" (Peters, Annulments and the Catholic Church, 50). Note also that the Catechism states, "If civil divorce remains the only possible way of ensuring certain legal rights, the care of the children, or the protection of inheritance, it can be tolerated and does not constitute a moral offense" (CCC 2383).



Q: Am I correct in assuming that a Catholic husband who has had a vasectomy cannot receive Communion? If that is true, what is the remedy? Obviously, reversal cannot always be accomplished.

A: A vasectomy constitutes grave matter. Together with full knowledge of the gravity of the action and full and free consent to the action, a mortal sin is committed. Assuming these conditions were met, the remedy is the same as for any mortal sin: the sacrament of reconciliation, through which a person is restored to a state of grace and may again receive Communion. The Church does not require that a sterilized man attempt to reverse the vasectomy. But if he chooses to do so, he might wish to contact One More Soul at www.omsoul.com.



Q: I’m thinking about obtaining an annulment from my previous marriage. My current marriage was before a justice of the peace. My husband and I would like to be married in the Catholic Church. My husband is a Presbyterian and I am Catholic. Does he have to become a Catholic in order to be married in the Catholic Church? Will he also have to have his previous marriage annulled before he is married in the Catholic Church?

A: It will be necessary for both of your previous marriages to be declared null before you can have your current marriage blessed (convalidated) in the Church. Permission is required for a Catholic to marry a non-Catholic, but there is no requirement for the non-Catholic party to become Catholic.

The Catechism speaks to couples in a situation such as yours and encourages you to seek forgiveness and live chastely: "If the divorced are remarried civilly, they find themselves in a situation that objectively contravenes God’s law. Consequently, they cannot receive eucharistic Communion as long as this situation persists. . . . Reconciliation through the sacrament of penance can be granted only to those who have repented for having violated the sign of the covenant and of fidelity to Christ and who are committed to living in complete continence" (CCC 1650).



Q: My eight-year-old asked me, "If God loves all his creatures, then doesn’t he love Satan?" I told her that God cannot love sin and that Satan is sin. Please correct me if I’m wrong and help me find an answer that an eight-year-old and I can understand.

A: Satan is not sin. Satan is a fallen angel who chose to turn away from God. When God created the angels, he created them good and gave them the free will to choose to love him or turn away from him. Because of their purely spiritual natures and their greater intellect, the choice of the angels was one irrevocable choice for God or for self. The fallen angels chose self. While God loves every being he has created, he will not force his love on anyone and will allow them to choose against him.



Q: Could you list for me the Bible passages that deal with homosexuality? I have a family member who argues that the New Testament doesn’t really deal with the issue and that the passages that do depend on interpretation.

A: The following New Testament passages deal with homosexual actions:

"For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. Their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural, and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in their own persons the due penalty for their error" (Rom. 1:26–27).

"Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither the immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor sexual perverts, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor robbers will inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor. 6:9–10).

"Now we know that the law is good, if any one uses it lawfully, understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, immoral persons, sodomites, kidnappers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine" (1 Tim. 1:8–10).

"Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise acted immorally and indulged in unnatural lust, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire" (Jude 7).

But God’s displeasure with acting out on homosexuality is depicted as early as Genesis 19 in the Old Testament. Also see Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13.

Yes, interpretation is important. If interpretation were left up to us as individuals, we could make the Bible say whatever we want it to say, and our sinful natures could gravitate toward interpretations that serve our passions. That is why, ultimately, the Church reserves the right to interpret Scripture to herself. "For all of what has been said about the way of interpreting Scripture is subject finally to the judgment of the Church, which carries out the divine commission and ministry of guarding and interpreting the word of God" (Dei Verbum 12).


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